THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING
MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020
032 CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR
Duration: 2:30 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS:-
1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C
2.Answer all questions in all sections
3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.
Atomic masses: C=12 O=16, H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.
Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023 particles
Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm3mol -1 or 22400cm3 mol -1
SECTION A (15MARKS)
- .Question (i) – (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
- It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
- CHO
- C2H2
- CH2O
- CHO2
- The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.
The graph shows the results.
Mass of beaker
And contents
Time
The two solutions could be:-
- Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
- Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
- Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
- Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro – chloric acid
- A student does an experiment in which three test – tubes containing hydrochloric acid.
The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test – tube?
Test tube 1
|
Test tube 2
|
Test tube 3
| |
A
|
Iron
|
Silver
|
Magnesium
|
B
|
Iron
|
Magnesium
|
Silver
|
C
|
Magnesium
|
Silver
|
Iron
|
D
|
Silver
|
Iron
|
Magnesium
|
- A Student decomposes aqueous hydrogen peroxide using manganese (iv) oxide MnO2 as catalyst
The question for the reactions is
2H2O2 Mno2 2H2O+O2
(aq) (l) (g)
- 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm3 of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm3 at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
- 0.01mol/dm3
- 0.10mol/dm3
- 0.05mol/dm3
- 0.50mol/dm3
- A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M2Co3 where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M2Co3, the mass of M2Co3 and beaker was 7.69g and mass of beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M2Co3 is:-
- 1.71g
- 5.21g
- 7.69g
- 1.70g
- The moles of sodium chloride in 250cm3 of 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
- 0.250Mol
- 0.125Mol
- 2Mol
- 1.25Mol
- Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
- Ionization energy
- Atomic size
- Electronegativity
- Sodium and zinc
- Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
- Magnesium and oxygen
- Nitrogen and oxygen
- Sulphur and fluorine
- Sodium and zinc
- One mole of water corresponds to:-
- 6.02 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x1023 oxygen atoms
- 22.4dm3 at 1atom and 250c
- 1g
- 18g
- Neutrons are present in all atoms except
- H
- He
- C
- Ne
- Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.
LIST A
|
LIST B
|
|
|
SECTION B:70 MARKS
Answer ALL questions
- An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would you offer as regards the followings:-
- __ Separation of crude oil into fractions
- __ The main fractions of crude oil
- __ Uses of fractions of crude oil
- __ Uses of fractions of crude oil
- __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.
(10 marks)
- (i) Explain the following terms:-
- Standard solution
- The end point of a titration
- 25cm3 of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm3 of dibasic acid, H2C2O4. XH2O containing 3.8gdm-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;
-Calculate;
i)The molar concentration of the acid
ii)The value of x
d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)
(10 marks)
- (i) Study the structures below the allotropes of carbon and answer the questions that follows:-
- Identify the allotropes S and R
- Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
- Explain the following
- Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
- Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher (10 marks)
- (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.
14
pH
12 A
10
8
6 B
4
2
0 Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm3)
- What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A (ii) B
- Explain why the pH value decreases
- Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
- Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.
(10marks)
- A part of periodic table below. The elements are represented by letters which are not the real symbols of the elements.
1A
| |||||||||
3B
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8C
|
9
|
10E
| ||
11M
|
12
|
13X
|
14L
|
15W
|
16H
|
17
|
18Z
| ||
19F
|
20 G
| ||||||||
- Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
- Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
- Which element is the most reactive metal?
- Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 00c and boils at 1000c?
- Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)
- 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
- Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.
Time from start of reaction (min)
|
Volume of Co2 evolved(cm3)
|
0
|
0
|
20
|
550
|
40
|
810
|
60
|
965
|
80
|
1000
|
100
|
1020
|
120
|
1020
|
- Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
- Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm3) against time (min)
- What volumes of carbondioxide where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
- Calculate the mass of 11.2cm3 of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm3 at S.T.P).
- Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes. (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12) (10marks)
- (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
- Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
- Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
- Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
- Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
- Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
- Calculate
- The value for the faraday constant
- The charge on the electrode
- A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
- Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon
- Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
- To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?
11. The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol X.
- Name the substances labeled X and Z
- Name substance Y
- Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X.
10. Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid
(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess
(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)
12. (a) State Le- chatelier’s principle
(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) catalyst 2NH3(g) H= -46.2KJ/mol
Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:
What will happen to the position of equilibrium if:
- The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
- More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
- The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?
(c ) What is the use of catalyst in the reaction in 10(b) above?
(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b) above?
(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.
SECTION C: (15 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions
13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:
i) A homologous series
ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
iii) Isomerism
b) Write and name all possible isomers of C5H12
c) Write the structures of the following:
i) 2,3-dimethylbutane
ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene
14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-
- The raw materials.
- The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
- The physical and chemical principle involved
- Economic importance of biogas.
031
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS
PHYSICS
TIME: 3 HOURS 2020
INSTRUCTIONS
- This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
- Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
- Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
- Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
- Where necessary the following constants may be used:
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2
Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3
Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×105K-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s
Pi, = 3.14
SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section.
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N
What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?
A. 0.005m
B. 6.020m
C. 0.020m
D. 4.520m
E. 1.57.
(ii) Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in
steel plates?
A. infrared waves
B. ultraviolet waves
C. xrays
D. gamma rays
E. micro waves.
(iii) A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called
A. cornea
B. iris
C. lens
D. pupil
E. retina.
(iv) The sun generates its energy by a process called
A. thermonuclear fission
B. thermonuclear fusion
C. geothermal energy
D. geothermal fusion
E. geothermal fission.
(v) What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in
front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?
A. 60cm
B. 40cm
C. 24cm
D. 12cm
E. 3cm.
(vi) What is the main function of step up transformer?
A. To change a.c to d.c current
B To decrease resistance in a circuit
C. To increase a.c voltage
D To decrease a.c voltage
E. To increase a.c current.
(vii) The most probable radiation forming a welldefined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called
A. Gammarays
B. Beta rays
C. Cathode rays
D. Alpha rays
E. Xrays.
(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called
A. Ptype
B. Ntype
C. PNtype
D. NPtype
E. PNPtype.
(ix) Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism
Because;
A Light waves interfere glass prism
B. Colours the light.
C. In glass different colours travel at different speeds.
D. Different colours are filtered
E. Diffraction of light occurs.
(x) Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire
is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?
is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?
- The ammeter is in parallel with R
- The voltmeter is in series with R
- A graph of V against Ihas a gradient equal to R
- A graph of Iagainst V has a gradient equal to R
- The rheostat is in parallel with R.
2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
List A
|
List B
|
(i) The region nearest the earth of which most weather
phenomenon occur.
|
A. Stratosphere
|
(ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found.
|
B. Atmosphere
|
| |
| |
(iii) The boundary which separates troposphere and
|
|
stratosphere.
|
|
G. Exosphere
| |
(iv) The outermost region of the atmosphere.
|
H. Thermosphere
|
| |
(v) The collective name given to troposphere and
|
|
stratosphere.
|
|
atmosphere.
|
M. Lower atmosphere
|
N. Tropopause
|
SECTION B. 60 MARKS
3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a a white screen. Draw a labeled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.
(b) Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye. ( 10 marks)
4. (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?( 1mark)
(ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to find the relative density of spirit. ( 2marks)
- (i)State Archimedes’ Principle. ( 2marks)
(ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water? ( 2marks)
- When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of the water rises from 17.7cm3to 18.5cm3. Calculate the
- Mass of a piece of wood.
- Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60. (3 marks)
5. (a) Define the following terms:
- Coefficient of superficial expansion. (1 mark)
- Anomalous expansion of water. ( 1 mark)
- (i)How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C? ( 2marks)
- (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above? ( 2marks)
radius 8.92mm at 20°C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit into the hole? ( 4 marks)
6. (a) (i)State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.(2marks)
(ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object? ( 1marks)
- (i)List three rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.(3 marks)
(ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.
( 2marks)
- A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.
- Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage. (1mark)
- Briefly explain how mirage is formed. ( 1mark)
7. (a) (i)What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell? (1 mark)
(ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery. ( 2marks)
- (i)Draw a well labeled diagram of a dry cell (Leclanche). (2 marks)
(ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a leadacid accumulators.
( 3marks)
- The current of 3.0A passes through a coil of resistance 5Ω connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5Ω coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4Ω , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the
- internal resistance of a cell. ( 1 mark)
- e.m.f of a cell. ( 1 mark)
8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission. ( 1mark)
(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission. ( 2marks)
(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.
Figure 1
- Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C. ( 1 mark)
- Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i). ( 1 mark)
- What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom? ( 1 mark)
(c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.
- 22688Ra → --------+ 22286Rn .______ ( 2marks)
- 22286Rn → 2 −10e +---------------- (2 marks)
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer TWO questions from this section.
9. (a) What is meant by;
- Asteroids ( 2 marks)
- Astronomy ( 2 marks)
(b) Distinguish between the following terms;
- Constellations ( 2 marks)
- Meteor and meteorites ( 2 marks)
( c) (i) Mention two tides of tides ( 2 marks)
(ii) With aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed. ( 6 marks)
10. (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank. ( 4 marks)
(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment? ( 2 marks)
- (i) Explain why there are four strings of different thickness in a violin? ( 2 marks)
(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string? ( 1/2 marks)
- (i)Briefly explain how a resonance tube works. ( 2 marks)
(ii) Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length
of 0.22m when the next resonance length is 0.47m. ( 2 marks)
11. (a) (i)State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer. ( 2 marks)
(ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.
( 2 marks)
- (i)Draw the magnetic field lines pattern in a horizontal plane due to a current carrying straight conductor when a d.c flows through it. ( 2 marks)
(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c? ( 2 marks)
- (i)What should be done in order to increase the speed of rotation in a d.c electric motor? ( 2 marks)
(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10 A at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable. ( 21/2 marks)
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING
MID TERM EXAMIATIONS
024 MATHS- FOUR
Duration: 3 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS.
- This paper consists of two sections A and B.
- Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
- Show clearly all working for each question
- Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
1. a) Use mathematical table, evaluate
b)Express 45.456 in form of where a and b are both integers.
2. a) If , evaluate
b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 2x
c)Rationalize the denominator
3. a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square
i) x2 + 8x +P=0 ii) x2 - x + P=0
b) Solve for x the equation
4. a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }. Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)
b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.
5. a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio of. How much will each get?
b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.
6.a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.
b) Point P is the mid-point of a line segment AB where A(-3,8) and B(5,-2), find an equation through P which is perpendicular to AB.
7.a) Without using mathematical table, evaluate
b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.
8.a) The lengths of two sides of triangle are 14cm and 16cm. Find the area of the triangle if the included angle is 300.
b)The area of a regular 6-sided plot of land inscribed in a circular track of radius r is 720cm2. Find the radius of the track.
9.a) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure
below
b) Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equalto interior opposite angle.
10. a)Solve for x if
b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.
SECTION B (40 MARKS)
11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below
Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000
|
3.0-3.4
|
3.5-3.9
|
4.0-4.4
|
4.5-4.9
|
5.0-5.4
|
5.5-5.9
|
6.0-6.4
|
6.5-6.9
|
Number of men
|
4
|
6
|
10
|
14
|
x
|
20
|
14
|
6
|
- Find the value of x
- Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men
- Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode
- Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median
a) Write down the inequalities that representing the given information.
b) Represent these inequalities graphically
c)Shirima makes a profit of sh. 150 on each pair of type A and sh.250 on each pair of type B. Determine the maximum possible profit he makes.
13. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Magoma Moto at 31stt December 2015
Name Of Account
|
Dr
|
Cr
|
Sales
|
1,800,000/=
| |
Purchases
|
1,155,000/=
| |
Opening Stock
|
377,000/=
| |
Carriage inwards
|
32,000/=
| |
Carriage outwards
|
23,000/=
| |
Return Inwards
|
44,000/=
| |
Return Outwards
|
35,000/=
| |
Salaries and wages
|
244,000/=
| |
Motor expenses
|
66,000/=
| |
Rent
|
45,000/=
| |
Discount allowed
|
12,000/=
| |
General office expenses
|
120,000/=
| |
Motor vehicles
|
2,400,000/=
| |
Furniture and Fittings
|
600,000/=
| |
Debtors
|
457,000/=
| |
Creditors
|
304,000/=
| |
Discount Received
|
35,600/=
| |
Cash at bank
|
387,000/=
| |
Cash in hand
|
12,000/=
| |
Drawings
|
205,000/=
| |
Capital
|
4,005,000/=
|
Stock at 31stt December 2015 was Tsh.499,000/=
a) Prepare trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31stt December 2015
b)The balance sheet as at 31stt December 2015
14.a) In the triangle ABC below, find values of angles marked x0 and
y0 where AB=12cm, BC=7cm and AC=8cm
b) Solve the following equations given that i)
ii)
c) Show that
15. a) In a figure below, represents a room 8m by 6m by 4m. Calculate
i)Length of diagonal AR
ii) Angle that AR makes with the floor
iii) Angle which plane TSAD makes with plane TSBC.
b)A water pipe made of material 2cm thick has an external diameter of 16cm. Find the volume of material used in making of the pipe 200m long.
16. a) The function f is defined as follows:
F(x) =
i) Sketch the graph of f(x)
ii) Determine domain and range
iii) Find i) f(1) ii) f(-4) iii) f(Ï€)
b)For what values of x is function f(x)= is undefined?
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING
MID TERM EXAMIATIONS
024 BOOK- KEEPING FORM FOUR
Duration: 2:30 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
2. Attempt ALL questions
3. Answers for section A and B should be written in the space provided in the question paper
and for section C should be written in the answer sheet provided.
1. For each of the following items write the letter of the correct answer in the table provided
- Given opening account receivable of 11,500, sales 48,000 and receipts from debtors 45,000, the closing account receivable total should be
a) 8,500 b) 14,500 c) 83500 d) 18,500
- If cost price is 90 and selling price is 120 then
i) Mark-up 25 percent ii) Margin is 331/2 percent
iii) Margin is 25 percent iv) Mark –up is 331/2 percent
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)
- Receipts and payments account is one
a) Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
b) In which the profit is calculated
c) In which the opening and closing cash balances were shown
d) In which the surplus of income over expenditure is calculated
- If it is required to maintain fixed capitals the partners’ shares of profit must be
a) Debited to capital accounts b) Credited to capital accounts
c) Debited to partners current account d) Credited to partners current account
- Yu are to buy an existing business which has assets valued at building 50,000, motor vehicle 15,000 fixture 5000 and inventory 40,000. You are to pay 140,000 for the business this means that
a) You are paying 40,000 for goodwill
b) Buildings are casting you 30,000 more then their value
c) You are paying 30,000 for goodwill
d) You have made an arithmetical mistake
- If accounts payable at 1st January 2005 were 2500, accounts payable at 31st December 2003 were 4200 and payment to creditors 32,000, then purchases for 2003 are.
a) 30,300 b) 33,700 c) 31,600 d) 38,700
- An allowance for doubtful debts is created
a) When debtors became bankrupt b) When debtors cease to be in business
c) To provide for possible bade debts d) To write –off bad debts
- If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the year’s depreciation would be
a) Credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
b) Debit assets account, credit profit and loss account
c) Credit assets account, debit provision for depreciation account
d) Credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account
- A firm bought a machine for 3200 it is to be depreciated at a rate of 25% using the reducing balance method. What would be the remaining book value after two years?
a) 1600 b) 2400 c) 1800 d) some other figure
- We originally sold 25 items at 12 each, less 331/2 percent trade discount. Our customer now returns 4 of them to us. What is the amount of credit note to be issued?
a) 48 b) 36 c) 30 d) 32
i
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ii
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iii
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iv
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v
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vi
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vii
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viii
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ix
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x
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2. Choose the correct term from GROUP A which match with the explanation in GROUP B and
write its letter against the of the relevant explanation
write its letter against the of the relevant explanation
GROUP A
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GROUP B
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a) Cost concepts
b) Money measurement concept
c) Going concern concept
d) Business entity concept
e) Realization concept
f) Prudence concepts
g) Consistency concepts
h) Accrual concept
i) Dual aspect concept
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i) The concepts implies that the business will continuous to operate for foreseable future
ii) Assets are normally shown at cost price and this is the basic of evaluation
iii) When the firm has due method of treatment of an item it will use the same method in coming years.
iv) Means normally an account should under state the figure rather than overstate the profit
v) This states that there are two aspect of accounting, one represented by assets of the business and assets of the business and other by the claim against them
vi) The net profit is the results of the difference between revenue and expenses
vii) The concept implies that the affairs of a business are to be treated as being quite separated from non-business activities of its owner
viii) This concept holds to the view that profit can be taken only into account when goods/services are provided for the buyer
ix) Accounting is concerned only with those facts. People will agree to the money value transactions.
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i
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ii
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iii
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iv
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v
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vi
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vii
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viii
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ix
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SECTION B (20 MARKS)
3.a) Write short notice on the following term
- Deferred revenue (01 mark)
- Conversion costs (01 mark)
- General journal (01 mark)
- Accounting (01 mark)
- Bed debts (01 mark)
b) Differentiate between fixed installment method and written down value method. (05 marks)
c) Show accounting entries in the books of consignor
- On dispatch of goods (01 mark)
- On payment of expenses on dispatch (01 mark)
- On receiving advance (01 mark)
- On the consignee reporting sales as per A/S (01 mark)
- For expenses incurred by the consignee as per A/S (01 mark)
- For commission payable to the consignee (01 mark)
- When advance is given (01 mark)
- In case of profit (01 mark)
- In case of loss (01 mark)
- When consignment is partly sold (01 mark)
SECTION C (60 MARKS)
4. Peter and Paul are in partnership sharing profit and loss according to the partnership act their
balance sheet shows the following at 31st December 1990
balance sheet shows the following at 31st December 1990
Capital: Peter 10,000
Paul 10,000 20,000
Current account: Paul 2,000
Long term liabilities
5% Loan 30,000
Current liabilities
Creditor 5,000
Bank over draft 1,000
58,000
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Building 19,000
Furniture 10,000
Current assets
Stock 20,000
Debtors 5,000
Cash in hand 3,000
Current a/c (Peter) 1,000
58,000
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On the same date they agreed to admit Pendo on the following conditions
- Pendo to contribute a capital of shs 10,000 for cash
- Pendo to pay shs 1000 in cash as premium
- The premium is raised in the books and with drawn by old partners.
- Pendo to pay in cash shs 500/= to credit his current account
- Pendo come with creditor shs 3000/= and stock shs 5000/=
- The money collected were paid into a firm’s bank account.
REQUIRED:
- Open relevant ledger account for the admission of Pendo
- Balance sheet after admission of Pendo (15 marks)
5. The following information relating to power Mabula Ltd for the period ended 31/12/2007
- Tsh 60,000/= were debited against the bank account under the directions of chief accountant in respect of clearing an overdue liabilities
- The bank statement showed a debit of Tsh 43,500/= being charges against the account holder power Mabula
- Tsh 16,000/= were paid but recorded as a receipt in the cash book. The cheque for this had been encashed in the bank
- Issued cheque but not presented to the bank for payment was Tshs 177,000/=
- Tshs 39,000/= had been credited to the account but it related to another bank account holder
- A payment of Tshs 66,900 had been recorded as Tsh 69,600 in the cash book.
- Tshs 48,000/= had been deposited directly to the bank where the account was credited
- Cheque totaling Tshs 70,000/= were received by the bank account holder and entered in his cash book as having deposited but were returned by the bank while marked “refer to drawer”
- Tshs 50,000/= were debited in error by the bank account holders another bank account and hence credited to this account
- Tsh 75,000/= in cheque had been deposited at the bank and shown as such in the cash book but had not been realized by the bank at the close of the months.
- The cash book balance was Tshs 228,310/= while the bank statement balance was Tshs 227,510/= both balances were favourable
REQUIRED:
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)
6. The following balances were extracted from Bagamoyo research station’s books of account as
at 30th November 1007
at 30th November 1007
Cash at bank 1,254,000
Account receivable 24,000
Research fees receivable 80,000
Research suppliers 102,000
Prepaid insurance 5,500
Leasehold 400,000
Building 1,200,000
Insurance expenses 500
Accumulated depreciation
Building 10,000
Building 10,000
Research equipment 24,000 34,000
Research equipment 1,440,000
Salaries payable 12,000
Interest payable 6,280
Service to be rendered 1,100,000
Notes payable 1,300,000
Capital 2,000,000
Research supplier expenses 18,000
Depreciation expenses:
Research equipment 24,000
building 10,000 34,000
building 10,000 34,000
Interest expenses 6,280
Salaries expenses 132,000
Revenue from services 244,000
REQUIRED:
- Prepare a trial balance as at 30th November 1997 and
- Profit and loss account for the year ending 30th November 1997 (15 marks)
7. Kibaha social club had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown
Club premises 100,000 ?
Subscription received in advance 1,700 2,400
Subscription due 4,100 7,300
Rate due 1,200 1,600
Prepaid insurance 1,300 2,200
Office furniture 7,500 11,600
Accrued wages 700 1,000
Sports equipment 6,400 ?
Its Treasurer prepared the following summary of its cash transactions
RECEIPTS AND PAYMENT ACCOUNT
Subscription 36,200
Donations 18,500
Sales of sports equipment 2000
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Wages & salaries 13,700
New furniture 6,000
New sports equipment 15,000
Rates 3,700
Insurance 5,500
Transport 6,600
General expenses 4,800
Entertainment 3,900
Balance c/d 1,800
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The following additional information is also available
- The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of shs 3500/=. Depreciation on sports equipment is provided at 20%
- The premises that had cost 120,000 some years ago are held on a 60 year lease
REQUIRED:
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31st December 1991 (15 marks)
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31st December 1991 (15 marks)
END
OFISI YA RAIS
WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA
MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULU- MACHI-2020
KISWAHILI
SEHEMU A (Alama 10)
UFAHAMU
Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.
1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;
Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.
Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi ya chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.
Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa meusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.
Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.
Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na ngozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru, utadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.
Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.
Maswali
- Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.
- Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii
- Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?
- “ wenyeji wan chi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utalii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliosoma.
- Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari;
- Chanikiwiti
- Vilivyokwajuka
2. Fupisha habari ulioisoma kwa maneno yasiozidi arobaini (40)
SEHEMU B (Alama 25)
SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA
Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.
3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.
(b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani.
- Picha
- Duka
- Shule
- Rehema
- Shati
- Trekta
- Ikulu
- Bunge
- Achali
4. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.
- Maisha ni safari ndefu
- Ukisoma kwa bidiii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
- Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
- Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
- Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.
5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.
(b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:
- Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.
- Mtendwa (idadi – wingi)
- Mtenda (kitu)
6. Bainisha tabia za maumbo yaliyokolezwa wino katika vitenzi ulivyopewa.
- Futa ubao
- Hutafaulu mtihani
- Ametualika
- Mtoto hulia mara nyingi
- Yeye ni mwalimu
- Mgonjwa amejilaza chini
- Wanavisoma vitabu vyao
- Paka amepigwa
- Mti umekatika.
7. (a) Eleza maana na dhima ya kiunganishi katika sentensi.
(b) Tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila kiunganishi kifuatacho;
- Kwa sababu
- Kama
- Ingawa
- Lakini
8. Jifanye kuwa mfanyabiashara wa mchele na unataka kuitangaza biashara yako nje na ndani ya nchi. Andika tangazo kuhusu biashara hiyo na jina lako liwe Pera Mlavi.
SEHEMU C. (Alama 45)
FASIHI KWA UJUMLA
Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.
ORODHA YA VITABU:
USHAIRI
Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatiby (DUP)
Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)
Mashairi ya ChekaCheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)
RIWAYA
Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)
Watoto wa Mama N’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)
Joka la Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P)
TAMTHILIYA
Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)
Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)
9. “Waandishi wa tamthiliya wameshindwa kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii iliyokusudiwa.” Kanusha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kotoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.
10. “Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi.” Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ilizosoma.
11. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020
022 HISTORY FORM FOUR
Time: 3Hours
Instructions:
- This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of 8 questions.
- Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C
- All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
- Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
- Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) What was the major causes of the Great Depression?
- Second World War
- First World War
- Berlin Conference
- Boer Trek
- Holland
(ii) The first European Nation to industrialize was:
- Germany
- Britain
- France
- Belgium
- Holland
(iii) The theory of evolution was proposed by:
- Louis Leakey
- Carl Peters
- Charles Darwin
- Henry Stanley
- Donald Cameron
(iv) Three pre – colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were:
- Socialism, capitalism and communism
- Socialism, capitalism and communalism
- Slavery, feudalism and communalism
- Slavery, feudalism and communism
- Socialism, capitalism and humanism
(v) The core ideas of the French Revolution were:
- Slave trade, colonialism and neo – colonialism
- Markets, raw materials and cheap labour
- Communalism, slavery and feudalism
- Fraternity, liberty and equality
- Scramble, partition and bogus treaties.
(vi) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show man’s physical development and the tools he made and used are called?
- Iron smiths
- Industrialists
- Revolutionists
- Evolutionists
- Archaeologists.
(vii) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called?
- Neo – colonialism
- Trusteeship
- Nationalism
- Bureaucracy
- Colonial economy
(viii) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?
- David Livingstone
- Charles Darwin
- Carl Peters
- Vasco Dam Gama
- Louis Leakey
(ix) Which of the following are included in the museums?
- Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
- Remains which shoe man’s pas made and used tools.
- Cultural practices such a as art, music, religion and riddles.
- Colonial records and early travelers’ records.
- Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.
(x) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was:
- Plantation
- Peasant
- Co –operative
- Settler
- Pastoralism
(xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except:
- Hunting and gathering
- Low production
- Exploitation of man by man
- Low level of technology
- Dependence on nature.
(xii) Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?
- David Livingstone
- Carl Peters
- Otto Von Bismarck
- Charles Darwin
- Adolf Hitler.
(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called?
- Capitalism
- Mercantilism
- Feudalism
- Industrial revolution
- Scramble
(xiv) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at:
- Intensifying slavery and slave trade
- Establishing heavy and slave trade.
- Establishing heavy industries
- Searching for the sea route to India.
- Establishing legitimate trade
- Assisting the Africans economically
(xv) The average difference of age between parents and their children is called?
- Period
- Age
- Family tree
- Time line
- Generation
- Family tree
2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer.
LIST A
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LIST B
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SECTION B:
3. (a) Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:
- A country whose independence sharpened the continent – wide struggle for independence.
- A country in which Biafra war occurred.
- A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
- A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
- The canal built by the colonialists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.
(b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa.
4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.
- Portuguese were expelled from the Fort Jesus
- Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
- Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope
- Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British
- Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.
SECTION C:
5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.
6. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points)
7. Assess six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.
8. Why did some Africans collaborate with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points)
THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020
CIVICS FORM FOUR
INSTRUCTIONS
This paper consists of section A, B and C
Answer all questions in section A, B and ONLY THREE questions from section C.
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writ its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet.
(i) Bride price is a socio cultural value which encourage
- Family planning
- Extended family
- Early marriage
- Female genital multilation
- Polygamy
(ii) One of the following is not a socio cultural value
- FGM
- Food taboos
- Spouse beating
- Male circumcision
(iii) ____________are election conducted to fill vacant sets in the local government or parliament.
- General election
- By election
- Election petition
- Elections
- Appointed
(iv) People who fun away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic persecution are called?
- Orphans
- Migrants
- Refugees
- Duel citizens.
- mercenaries
(v) The UHURU TORCH symbolizes
- Freedom and work
- State power and economic base
- National defense
- Freedom and enlightment
- National development
(vi) The study of rights and responsibilities of citizens is known as______
- Constitution
- Civics
- Government
- Civic rights
(vii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?
- Low per capital income
- High illiteracy rate
- Dependent economy
- Low mortality rate
- Environment destruction
(viii) The organs responsible for administering elections in Tanzania are:-
- REDET and TEMCO
- ZLSC and ILHR
- EAC and SADC
- ZEC and NEC
- CCM and CUF
(ix) One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things
- Cooperative techniques
- Problem solving
- Initiation and mediation
- Life skills and promotion
- Guidance and counseling
(x) Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and a woman. Such friendship is called?
- Honeymoon
- Cohabitation
- Early marriage
- Courtship
- Infidelity
2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing a letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.
List A
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List B
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SECTION B: (20 Marks)
3. Answer all questions in this section.
Read the following passage and then answer the questions which follow:
The population of Tanzania has been growing at rate higher than 3 percent. However, food production and the economy have been growing at lower rates. The increase in population raises the demand for basic requirements of the people. It also put great pressure on the available natural resources. That is why a high growth rate of the population lead to deforestation, pollution, soil erosion, deterioration of the biosphere in general and conflicts in land use.
Population growth and deterioration in environmental quality have now become world problems. The combination of population increase, its distribution in the country and the use of natural resources tend to lead to serious problems. This is not only in Tanzania but also to many developing countries. Man has been the major agent of resource depletion which eventually cause environmental degradation. It is man’s activities that have degraded the land through its misuse and over use. Therefore, if population increase is not controlled, it will have adverse effects on both the environment and man.
When the number of people increase, the demands for food, water, arable land, wood fuel and building and other essential materials from the surrounding environment also increase. When the supply of such resources fall, life become difficult, social problem do arise etc. a bigger population needs more resources for survival and development.
QUESTIONS:
- Suggest the suitable title for the passage
- What are the effects of a high growth of population
- According to the passage, what causes the rise of the demand for basic requirements of the people in Tanzania?
- Mention man’s activities that have degraded the land.
4.
- Outline five (5) importance of team work
- List down any five (5) solution to improper behavior
SECTION C (60 marks)
Answer three questions in this section.
5. Discuss the caused and effects of poverty in Tanzania
6. “Tanzania is not a poor country. Discuss
7. Analyze problems facing the informal sector and then propose ways of improving this sector
8. Point out the factor for Economic Development
9. Highlight the challenges facing the provision of social services in Tanzania.
10. Discuss the impacts of negative aspects of our cultural values.
THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
MID TERM EXAMINATION- MARCH-2020
033/1 BIOLOGY 1
Time: 3Hours
Instructions:
- This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
- Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
- All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
- Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
- Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provide.
(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?
- For collecting wastes
- For disposing gaseous wastes
- For disposing liquid wastes
- For burning hazardous wastes
- For disposing plastic wastes.
(ii) Mrs. Juma’s child has protruding stomach and swollen lower limbs. What type of food should she give to her child to overcome the problems?
- Starch
- Lipids
- Proteins
- Minerals
- Vitamins
(iii) In the food chain: Grass Zebra Lion. A lion is
- A primary consumer
- A secondary consumer
- A producer
- A tertiary consumer
- A decomposer
(iv) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height?
- Root pressure
- Transpiration pull
- Cohesion forces
- Adhesion forces
- Capillarity
(v) A patient has been diagnosed with level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victim’s sugar?
- Insulin
- Glucagon
- Antidiuretic
- Aldosterone
- Testosterone
(vi) Which one is the feature of aging in human beings?
- Shorter reaction times
- Strong bones
- Strong muscles
- Body increase in size
- Wrinkling of the skin.
(vii) Viruses are considered to be non – living because:
- Are only active in contents of living cell
- They have true nuclei
- Body is covered by a cell wall
- They are single – cell Eukaryotic organisms
- They are multicellular organisms.
(viii) The cell wall:
- Gives rigidity to plant and animal cells.
- Made up of a layer of pectin
- Are composed mainly of cellulose.
- Is a product of middle lamella
- Surrounds all types of cells.
(ix) Oxygen debt occurs when.
- Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body.
- Rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis
- Alcohol is formed in the tissue.
- There is insufficient oxygen in muscle tissue during strenuous exercise.
- There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissue.
(x) Which of the following prevents surface of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?
- Capsular ligament.
- Synovial membrane
- Articula cartilage
- Tendon
- Synovial capsule
2. Matching items questions.
LIST A
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LIST B
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
3. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus
(i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.
(b) Explain what would happen if:
(i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.
(ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.
4. (a) Study the diagram below and answer question that follows.
- Name the type of nutrition found in above plant
- Name the organism
- Discuss the environmental importance of this type of feeding
(b) Name the forces involved in water movement up the plant.
5. (a) (i) Kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions, mention them.
(ii) Give one example the plants which are found in each division.
(b) With the use of illustrations, differentiate between dicotyledonous and monocotyledonous in the following aspects.
- Venation
- Arrangement of vascular tissues in stem.
6. (a) Study the diagram below on nerve cell and answer the questions that follows.
- Name parts A, B, C, and D.
- Where does neurone in fig. above carry impulse to?
- Name (2) other types of nerve cells found in the nerves system of vertebrates and state their functions.
(b) State four differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication.
7. Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.
8. (a) What is the difference between marasmus and Kwashiorkor?
(b) A food substance was heated with sodalime, NaOH/CaO.
A gas was evolved which turned litmus paper blue. The gas smelled urine. What is the nature of this food substance?
9. How are the respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? Give four points
10. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.
(b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.
11. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus
(i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.
(b) Explain what would happen if:
(i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.
(ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.
12. (a) Distinguish between exoskeleton and endoskeleton using the following sub headings.
(i) Position in the body
(ii) Composition
(iii) Examples of Organism in which they are found.
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.
13. Discuss the concept of drug abuse under the following heading.
- Meaning of Drug abuse
- Causes.
- Preventive and control measures.
14. Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its important under the following headings.
- Need for food preservation
- Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.
15. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.
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