EXAM SERIES EXAM

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
Time 3:00 Hours                                                                              MAY 2020 
Instructions 
  • This paper consists of two sections A and B. 
  • Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary 
                       SECTION A (60 MARKS) 
1. (a) Arrange the number in ascending order.
(b) Express 0.06896 correct to: 
     (i) three (3) significant figures
     (ii) three (3) decimal places
     (iii) in standard form
2. (a) Solve for x in the equation:  32x-3 x 8x+4 = 64 ÷ 2x
(b) Solve for x in the equation log(x2+8) – logx = log6
3.  (a) Find the solution set of the inequality  and indicate it on a number line.
(b) If find n if
(c) Simplify the following expression and state the coefficient of
4. (a) In a school of 75 pupils, 42% of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32% take both subject and 10% of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?
 ( b) The Venn diagram below shows the universal set U and its two subsets A and B
                                                                        Write down the elements of
 i) A’     ii)B’   iii)AUB    iv) A’UB’   
5. The figure ABCD below is rectangle with sides as shown where C1 and C2 are two quarter circles inside it.

Find:
a) Value x and y shown in the  figure above
b) Perimeter of the rectangle
c)Area of the rectangle ABCD
 d) Area of the shaded region
6.  (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2; given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4.
(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (to) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If
 Ti = 320C when To =240C and t = 9 cm, find the value of t when Ti = 360C and To = 180C
7. (a) A shirt whose marked price is Tshs 80,000/= is sold at a 13% discount, if the trader makes a profit of 20%, find the selling price of the shirt.
(b) A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 360
  1. Find the size of the interior angle
  2. How many sides does this polygon have
  3. Find the sum of interior angles of this polygon
8. (a) Find the 10th  term of the G.P if the 4th term is 8 and the 7th term of this G.P is 16.
(b) Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the series: 4 + 6 + 8 + - - - - - - - - 
9. (a)Find the value of  without using mathematical tables.
(b) A ladder leans against vertical wall. If the ladder reaches 12m up the wall and its foot is 9 cm from the base of the wall. Find the length of the ladder.
10. (a) Factorize completely by splitting the middle term
(b) Factorize and hence find exact value of (10003)2 –(997)2
(c) Solve the equation
          SECTION B ( 40 MARKS )
  (a) The function f is defined as follows:
                   
 (i) Sketch the graph of .
(ii) Determine the domain and range of 
(b) If R-1 =. Find the domain and range of R
   12. The 4th, 6th and 9th terms of arithmetic progression forms first three terms of geometric progression. If the first term of the A.P is 3, determine the:
(a) Common difference of the arithmetic progression
(b)Common ratio of the geometric progression
(c) Kicheche deposited Tshs100000/= in a bank at a compound interest of 8% per annum for 4 years. Find how much interest he received 
13.  The weight in kg of 40 students were recorded as follows:
Weight in(kg)
10 - 19
20 - 29
30 - 39
40 - 49
50 - 59
60 - 69
70 - 79
Number of students
8
3
   x
8
7
2
2
Calculate:
(a) The value of x
(b) The mode by using the formula. 
(c) By using an assumed mean, find the average weight of the students
(d) Draw a cumulative frequency curve and hence use it to estimate median.
14. a) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his    relatives. If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:-
i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. 
ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.
b)A shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% by selling a TV for 480,000/=
 i) Find ratio of buying to selling price
 ii) If the radio would be sold for 360,000/=, what would be the percentage loss?     
15. The function f is defined as follows:
f(x) =
  i) Sketch the graph of f(x)
 ii) Determine domain and range
 iii) Find  i) f(0)   ii) f(-6)   iii) f(π)
b)For what values of x is fuction f(x)= is undefined?
16. Mr. Chakubanga started business on 15th February, 2005 with capital in cash 1,055,000/=
February 16 Bought goods for cash 500,000/=
18 Bought shelves for cash 55,000/=
19 Sold goods for cash 450,000/=
20 Purchases for cash 400,000/=
21 Sold goods for cash 700,000/=
25 Paid rent for cash 150,000/=
Required:  Record the above transactions in the respective ledgers and extract a trial balance.


FORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 21
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMMERCE- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                2020
NAME:_______________________________________________                     CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
  • This paper consists two sections A and B
  • Answer All questions in both sections
  • Answers should be written in blue/black ink
SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. For each of items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the boxes provided below:
(i) All of the following methods are involved in a barter exchange except:
  1. The buyer must have some goods to give to the seller
  2. The buyer must pay cash to the seller
  3. The buyer can offer labour services to obtain goods
  4. There must be a double coincidence of wants
 (ii)  Which one of the following is an example of a barter trade?
  1. Fish and coins
  2. Goat and notes
  3. Cow and chair
  4. Sheep and silver coins
 (iii) Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?
  1. Manufacturing
  2. Constructive
  3. Extractive
  4. Textile 
 (iv) The resources in the form of money or materials that a person or an organization has for establishing and running a business is called:
  1. Merchandise
  2. Basic needs
  3. Capital
  4. Debts
 (v)  The point where demand and supply curves intercept is called:
  1. Centre point
  2. Zero point
  3. Equilibrium point
  4. Margin
 (vi) A refrigerator used in making ice cream for sale, is in the category of:
  1. Consumer goods
  2. Luxury goods
  3. Producer goods
  4. Domestic goods
 (vii) Generally, more goods will be supplied when:
  1. Prices are relatively high
  2. Prices are relatively low
  3. Prices are fairly competitive
  4. Prices are fixed by the government 
 (viii) Traders who do not have permanent business premises are called:
  1. Itinerant traders
  2. Gamblers 
  3. Brokers
  4. Underwriters
  5. Retailers
 (ix) The last people in the distribution chain are:
  1. The customers
  2. The retailers
  3. The wholesalers
  4. The consumers
 (x) Given that:
  • Daily sales = 20 tins of NIDO milk
  • Delivery time = 5 days
  • Minimum stock = 100 tins of NIDO milk
Order point is:
  1. 200 tins
  2. 150 tins
  3. 180 tins
  4. 100 tins
2. MATCHING ITEMS
Choose the items in group A that matches with the items in group B
LIST A
LIST B
(i) The period of time between ordering and replenishment, i.e. when goods are available for use
(ii) The level reached immediately after the receipt of new supply of goods
(iii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice
(iv) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice
(v) Are self-services shops that stock varieties of items? 
  1. Super markets
  2. Retailers
  3. Credit note
  4. Debit note
  5. Cheque
  6. Drafts
  7. Wholesalers
  8. Manufacturers
  9. Issuing of stock
  10. Order point
  11. Care of stock
  12. Lead or procurement time
  13. Stock taking
  14. Maximum stock
  15. Stock valuation
SECTION B
3. Short answer questions
  1. Traditional Media
  2. Visual communication
  3. Inflation
  4. Expansionary Monetary policy
  5. Savings bank
SECTION C
Answer All questions in this section 
4. “Money is as money does “Discuss.
5. Discuss the importance of communication to business
6. a) What is B.O.T?
b) Examine the functions of B.O.T in Tanzania
7. Explain the  qualities of a good retailer
8. Explain the problems facing communication in Tanzania
9. a)Explain the term “ Transportation”
b) State the merits of air transport in Tanzania. (Five points)
10. Discuss the factors which must be considered for choosing a mode of transport


FORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 20
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
BOOKEEPING- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 2½HRS                                                                  2020
NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
  • Answer all questions
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives write its letter beside the item number
(i) Which of the following is a liability?
  1. Debtor
  2. Loan from exim bank
  3. Building
  4. Prepaid expenses
 (ii) The cash payment of T.shs 439,000 to Juma would appear as follows:
  1. Credit Juma account, credit cash account
  2. Debit Juma account, credit cash account
  3. Debit bank account, credit Juma account
  4. Debit cash account, credit Juma account
 (iii) Which of the following are personal accounts?
  1. Building and machine
  2. Wages and salaries
  3. Account receivable and account payables
  4. Profits and loss
 (iv)In the trial balance, accumulated provision for depreciation account is
  1. Shown as a credit item
  2. Not shown as it is part of depreciation
  3. Shown as a debit item
  4. Sometimes shown as a credit, sometimes as a debit
 (v) Which of the following is not correct?
  1. Assets – capital=liabilities
  2. Liabilities + capital=assets
  3. Liabilities + Assets=capital
  4. Assets – liabilities =capital
 (vi) Which of the following should be charged in the trading, profit and loss account(income statement)
  1. Office rent
  2. Work-in-progress
  3. Direct materials
  4. Carriage on raw materials
 (vii) At the end of trading  period, bad debt account is closed and transferred to the
  1. Balance sheet
  2. Profit and loss account
  3. Trading account
  4. Allowance for doubtful debits account
 (viii) Revenue expenditure is
  1. The extra capital paid in buying non-current assets
  2. The extra purchase of goods for sale
  3. Money spent on selling fixed assets
  4. The cost inairred in running the business on a day to day basis
 (ix) An allowance made on the date of sales in respect of the date of payment is
  1. Discount allowed
  2. Cash discount
  3. Trade discount
  4. Quantity discount
 (x) If shs 1000/= was added to purchases instead of being added to a fixed asset
  1. Net profit only would be understated
  2. Net profit only would be overstated
  3. Both gross profit and net profit would be understated
  4. Both gross profit and net profit would be overstated
2. Match the following by choose the correct answer from column B and write its letter beside the item number in column A
Column A
Column B
(i) An item is entered in the wrong class of account
(ii) Where errors cancel each other 
(iii) Where transaction is completely omitted from the books
(iv) Where correct accounts are used but each item is shown on the wrong side of an account
(v) Where correct amount is entered in the wrong account
(vi) Where incorrect amount is entered in the accounts
(vii) Incorrectly adding up figures to give an answer which is less than it should be
(viii) Used to set the amount which will make the trial balance to balance when is affected by errors
(ix) When transaction is posted twice in along the correct principles  of double entry system
(x) Errors committed when dualistion aspect of a transaction is not followed
  1. Error of omission
  2. Error of principle
  3. Compasating error
  4. Error of commission
  5. Error of original entry
  6. Error of complete reversal
  7. Error of duplication
  8. Transposition error
  9. Suspense account
  10. Arithmetical errors
  11. Single entry errors
 SECTION B
3. Write short notes on the following 
  1. Capital expenditure
  2. Bad debts
  3. Depreciation of non-current asset
  4. Manufacturing account
  5. Single entry system
 4. Kibaha education centre had received house rent for 1982 amounting to sh. 72,000. Out of this amount shs. 4,000 related to the year ending December 1983.
Required:
Rent received account to show the amount transferred to the profit and loss account
SECTION C
5. Jangua started business on 1st January 1993.  Purchases and disposals of machines over three years were as follows.
machine
Date of purchase
Cost(shs)
Date of disposal
Disposal proceeds(shs)
MAI
1Jan 1993
5000,000
-
-
MB 2
1Jan 1993
2500,000
1 Jan 1995
900,000
MC 3
1 Jan 1995
7000,000
-
-
The machines are depreciated on straight line method using rate of 20% per annum
Required:
  1. Machine account
  2. Provision for depreciation account
  3. Disposal of machines account
 6. K owns a store, her records are incomplete. You have been called in to prepare her accounts.
Through investigation the following information was obtained
                                                              01.01.2013               31.12.2013
Stock                                                     2,100                            2,240
Trade creditors                                        960                            1,000
Motor vans                                            1,200                           1,000
Debtors                                                1,300                           1,040
Rates pre-paid                                         80                                96
Cash at bank                                           900                           2,344
Additional information
Drawings during the year amounted to Tshs 120 per week
Legacy of Tsh.400 received on March 2013 had been paid into the business bank account 
Required
  1. Statement of affairs at 1st January 2013
  2. Statement of affairs at 31st December 2013
  3. Statement of profit or loss for the year 2013
7. From the following prepare manufacturing, trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31.12.2013
Stock at 01.01.2013:
Raw materials                                        1,845,000
Work in progress                                    2,360,000
Finished goods                                      1,747,000
Purchases: raw materials                       6,430,000
Carriage on raw materials                       160,500
Direct labour                                         6,581,000
Office salaries                                       1,692,000
Rent                                                        270,000
Office lighting and heating                      576,000
Depreciation:
Works machinery                                       830,000
Office equipment                                       195,000
Sales                                                          20,060,000
Factory fuel and power                                592,000
Additional notes on 31.12.2013
Stock at 31.12.2013
Raw materials                                          2,021,000
Work-in-progress                                      1,739,000
Finished goods                                          2, 1488,500
Rent is to be apportioned as follows:
       Factory     (20) / (30)
       Office    (10) / (30)

FORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 19
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
ENGLISH- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 3HRS                                                                      2020
NAME:_______________________________________________                    CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
  • This paper consist of section A,B,C and D
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and section C and D as instructed under each section
  • Neat and clear explanation work is very important.
SECTION A (20 MARKS)
COMPREHENSION
Answer ALL questions in this section
1. Read the following passage carefully then answer questions that follow it by writing the letter of the correct answer in the booklet(s) provide.
     The beach at Lumley was a beautiful and impressive sight. The soft white sand fell away from rutted roadway in a gentle slope until it flattened out in a short plateu before dipping sharply to the sea. At the moment huge rollers were rushing inward to hurt themselves against the lower lip of the beach and expand their whistling froth in a fruitless struggle up the plateau.
     “Rather dangerous hare for bathing. Lets try further along, “he said.
About a kilometer beyond the golf court the beach curved gently in a shallow crescent. Several long boats manned by briskly padding Africans were darting to and from in among the gentler waves, while on shore scores of African men and women were gathered in long lines holding ropes which led to the edge of the water and out to sea.
     “This is really something you should not miss”, he said. “Lets get down there and watch the sun”
At close hand those on the beach were lined up, each like a tug-of-war team ready and waiting for its opponent. Each of these teams consisted of twenty or more men, women and children, most of them wet to the skin from contact with the waves, the young ones, boys and girls, were clad only in a kind of flowing loin-cloth. Some of these laughing children were truly beautiful; their smooth skins generously pearled by water droplets, eyes and teeth flashing in enjoyment. The young girls, some of them in their early or late teens, were full-breasted and completely unshy. Running up and down some short distance from the teams, shouting and waving his arms seaward was a large African clad only on the pair of uncolored shorts and a grotesque wide brimmed straw hat. His stentorian voice yelled instructions to the boat crew who paddled furiously or paused at his signals while those on the shore, at a word from him, hauled so vigorously on the lines that often several members of each team would tumble over in the sand to the delight of others.
     Suddenly the conductor for such he seemed to be, signaled rapidly seaward and all the boats immediately swung round to point inland, the paddlers working furiously as they raced simultaneously towards the beach. Meanwhile the line of pullers on the beach raced up the easy slope and soon the first ends of the nets appeared. Now ensured a frantic pulling on the ropes, hand-over-fist as they hurried to land the twisting, heaving, silvery catch, their voices raised in excited yells, laughter and exaltation.
     The boatmen raced their craft until they grounded, then leaped out to draw them up above the water-line before turning to lend a hand with the catch. And what a catch it was! Fish varying in length from two to three feet or more, fat succulent things which flopped and slithered as they were hauled to form a huge silvery pile which glittered in the rays of the slanting sun.
     As if informed by some kind of bush telegraph, several lorries and cars appeared along the road, honking their contributions to the din and disgorging groups of fish vendors and middle men.
QUESTIONS
(i) Why did the writer go to the second beach,
  1. He wanted to see more of the beautiful coast
  2. He wanted to see how the people landed the fish
  3. He wanted to go for a swim in the sea
  4. He wanted to see what the fisherman had caught
 (ii) What do we learn from the passage about the second beach?
  1. It was partly flat with occasional slope
  2. It had quite a gentle slope
  3. It curved gently down to the water
  4. It slopped gently until it nearly reached the water
 (iii) What were the wavers like at the second beach?
  1. They were quite gentle
  2. Most of them were gentle
  3. A few were gentle but most of them were rough
  4. We cannot be sure
 (iv) From the passage we can deduce that the number of people on the second beach was:-
  1. About forty
  2. Between forty and sixty
  3. At least sixty
  4. More than eighty
 (v) Which of the following actions did the “conductor” perform?
  1. He waved and shouted to both the crews and the teams
  2. He shouted to both the crews and the teams, and waved to the former
  3. He waved and shouted to the crew and spoke softly to the teams
  4. He waved to both the crews and the teams and shouted to the former
 (vi) How did the “conductor” get the boats to approach the shore?
  1. He waved to them
  2. He shouted to them
  3. He waved and then shouted to them
  4. He shouted and then waved to them
 (vii) Which of the following statement is true according to the passage
  1. The team pulled the nets on to the sand by racing up the beach
  2. The “conductor” only needed to tell the teams once to pull in the nets
  3. Some of the children fell over while pulling in the nets
  4. More people arrived on the beach and helped the teams to pull up the nets
 (viii)  The boatmen raced their craft:-
  1. Up to the end
  2. Above the water line
  3. Until they grounded
  4. Below the water line
 (ix) What appeared along the road?
  1. Only lorries
  2. Some buses
  3. Several lorries and cars
  4. Only cars
 (x) How was the beach formed as we read from the passage?
  1. The soft white sand fell and flattened in the plateau
  2. The soft white sand fell up to the sea
  3. The white sand fell near the sea
  4. The soft white sand accumulated at the sea
2. Match each expression in list A with correct word from list B by writing its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided use the following format for your answers
COLUMN A
COLUMN B
(i) The customs office
(ii) The tin deposits in that area
(iii) Gave him a thorough examination
(iv) The absence of light has
(v) I am sure she regrets……
  1. Hurt one of his patients
  2. Provides them with reasonable income
  3. Will need a dustbin
  4. The doctor
  5. What said
  6. Demanded for our passports
  7. A little farther along the road
  8. Luggage in the back of the car
  9. Would probably be exhausted in the near
  10. A considerable effect on plants and animals
 3. Read and summarize the following passage into 40 words;
     Women make up half of the world’s population. On that basis, one might expect that work and its rewards would be shared equally between men and women. Unfortunately, that’s not the case. In fact, in most countries, there is discrimination against women in terms of work rewards for work, ownership of property, legal rights, social opportunities and political responsibilities.
     In many societies today, especially where it is difficult to be financially independent, women are like unpaid servants in their own homes. It is women that take responsibility for raising the children and feeding and looking after their families’ health. In addition to their domestic work, many women also have to work on land or in factories to add to the family income. In Africa though women do 60% of the agricultural work, 50% of the caring of the animals and all the food processing, they have no right to any of the income from the sale of the produce or to ownership of land. Women are also responsible for collecting of firewood and freshwater. They make a great contribution to the development of their country through this upaid labour.
 4. Underline the word which does not fit in the following groups of words
  1. Actress, lawyer, accountant, musician, niece
  2. Spoon, plate, apron, bowl, fork
  3. Chair, iron sheet, table, cupboard, bed
  4. Wall, pencil, book, pen, paper
  5. Trousers, bed sheet, shirt, shorts, dress
SECTION B 40 MARKS
5. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each
(i) If you had been there I would have done it
Begin Had………….
(ii) Unless you write to me I will not write to you again
Begin:  If……………
(iii) He sells salt and sugar
Rewrite Not only…………….
(iv) The students did their work. Then they sat down to rest
Join the two sentences and begin:  Having……………
(v) The girl is not foolish. The girl sells fish
Join the two sentence using “who”
(vi) Our team practices every day. We are getting better
Join the sentences beginning: the more…………..
(vii) She is poor. She cannot pay school fees
Rewrite the sentence using…….too…..to………
(viii) They are young but they are strong
Begin with Inspite of …….)
 6. (a) Using the words below, complete the following expression, chef, tailor, air host, secretary, student, manager customer, cobbler, doctor.
  1. A person whose job is to make clothes like suits for an individual customer is called………….
  2. A male flight attendant is called……………….
  3. A person that buys something from a shop or business is called………..
  4. A person whose profession is to cook………………….
  5. A person who amends shoes is known as…………………
 (b) Study lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences
Activities
Time
Wake up
Take a bath
Go to school
Do school activities
Return back home
She watches television
5:00am
6:00 am
7:00 am
8:00am – 12:00pm
1:30 am
2:30 am
 7. Re-arrange the following five  sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided
  1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge village
  2. He finished his first degree in 1997
  3. He started his primary education in 1980
  4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company
  5. The first born in our family is Yoshia
 8. a) Imagine that you have been employed in one of the Chinese industry for about a year now and you are getting hardships. Write a letter to your sister explaining about the hardship you are going through and ask her to secure another job for you else where sign your name Aman Tumanin.
b) Imagine that you have been elected to be a chairperson of Mwananchi Street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solved. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.
c) Write a composition on the use of cosmetics (250 words)
d) Suppose you are a member of debate club and the motion given is “Politicians are more destructive than constructive in life. Write on opposing and prosing sides not less than five point each side.
SECTION C
RESPONSE TO READING
ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS
9. If you were given a chance to suggest some of the themes in novel and play that are relevant in Tanzania today which ones would you suggest? Use two novels to make references as respond to the question.
10. The personality of an individual is influenced by his environment. Discuss this with reference to two readings.
11. Poets use poems to pass on intended message to the readers use two poems you have done in the class write messages found in the poem four messages from each poem.
12. Thin and red
Skinny and bald
The boy groans on the ground
Swollen stomach
Full of waste
Thin legs
Thin arms
Twitch
As the boy
Fights with flies
Over the empty plate
Ten years old
He looks older than young
And so small
As he wriggles
Prisoner
Of his unproportioned body
“Mother” shouts the boy
When I grow up
I will carry a gun
And not a pen
“My son” shouts the mother
“My son” cries the mother
You will never live to carry a gun
There is no meat for us
Answer the following questions
  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Write four figures of speech found in poem
  3. Write three themes found in the poem
  4. Write three messages found in the poem

FORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 18
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 3:00HRS                                                                      2020
NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
  • This paper consists of sections A,B,C and D
  • Answer All questions in section A,B and C and ONE (1) question from each part in section D
  • Map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 is provided 
  • Credits will be awarded for the use of relevant diagrams and examples
  • All writings must be done in BLUE or Black ink except for the diagrams which must be done by pencil
  • Remember to write your name and class in the spaces provided above.
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. For each of the items (i-x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the box provided.
(i) Great circle refers to:-
  1. A line of longitude
  2. Greenwich meridian only
  3. A line of the globe
  4. The shortest distance between the two points
  5. A circle in the surface whose plane passes through the centre of the globe.
 (ii) Pangani at sea level has a temperature of 32C, what is the temperature of Arusha 1500M above the sea level?
  1. 230c
  2. 170c
  3. 90c
  4. 190c
  5. 0.60c
 (iii) Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:-
  1. The monsoon region
  2. Tropical grasslands
  3. Hot deserts
  4. The Mediterranean region
  5. The equatorial region
(iv) The slow movement of soil particles which can be recognized by bending of trees and fences is referred to as:-
  1. Soil erosion
  2. Mud flow
  3. Land slide
  4. Rock fall
  5. Soil creep
 (v) The secretary general of the U.N addressed the world from New York (75w 42N) at 7:30p.m Tuesday. At what time and day will the people in Dar es Salaam (45E 06S) hear the same speech?
  1. 3:30p.m Wednesday
  2. 12:30p.m Tuesday
  3. 3:30a.m Wednesday
  4. 8:30p.m Tuesday
  5. 11:30p.m Wednesday
 (vi) The barysphere of the earth is made up of:
  1. Silica and magnesia
  2. Iron and aluminia
  3. Silica and aluminia
  4. Iron and nickel
  5. Iron and Zinc 
 (vii) The name given to the boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:
  1. Mohorovicic
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Core
  4. Astheriosphere
  5. Gutenberg 
 (viii) _____________is a point where cold air from the polar regions meet warmer air from lower latitudes
  1. Pressure gradient
  2. Humidity
  3. Tropical maritime
  4. Polar front
  5. Cyclone 
 (ix)  Which one of the following combinations form chemical weathering?
  1. Organic acid and temperature change
  2. Exfoliation and carbonation
  3. Organic acid and weak carbonic acid
  4. Mud flow and land slides
  5. Temperature change and frost action
 (x) The earth is said to be oblate spherical because it is:
  1. A flattened sphere
  2. Spherical in shape
  3. Has a flattened surface
  4. Round
  5. A planet
 2. Match the items in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.
LIST A
LIST B
(i) The earth’s zone which is made up of nickel and iron
(ii) Magma which reaches the earth’s surface and solidifies to form extrusive features
(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along the bedding plane
(iv) A wall like feature formed when a mass of magma cuts across the bedding plane
(v) The uppermost layer of the earth
  1. Core
  2. Lava
  3. Sill
  4. Volcano
  5. Crust
  6. Mode
  7. Batholiths
  8. Mantle
  9. Magma
  10. Dyke 
 SECTION B (27 MARKS)
3. a) What do you understand by “Earthquake”?
b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes
c) Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes
4. (a) What is data in statistics?
(b) Explain with examples the following terms
  1. Individual data
  2. Discrete data
  3. Continuous data
  4. Grouped data
5. There are a number of researches conducted from different areas across the world. Suggest four advantages of research findings to Tanzania as a developing country after giving the definition of the word research”
 6. a) Define surveying.
b) When someone wants to conduct a survey he/she has to prepare himself/herself before. Explain four (4) important things a surveyor has to prepare before deciding to conduct a chain survey.
 7. Study carefully the map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 and then answer the questions that follow:
  1. Calculate the area covered by seasonal swamp in square kilometer (km2) 
  2. With evidence from the map suggest two economic activities which might take place in the mapped area 
  3. Name the features found at the following grid reference  875658 and 840580
  4. Describe the relief features found in a mapped area
  5. Change the map scale into statement scale
8. Study carefully the photograph provided below then answer the questions that follow:
image
  1. With reasons suggest the type of photograph above 
  2. Name the crop shown in the photograph
  3. Mention the natural conditions which favor the growth of the crop above
  4. Tanzania is very famous in growing the crop mentioned (b) above. Name three regions of Tanzania which grow the crop at commercial level
  5. With concrete evidence, explain the scale of production as shown on the photograph
SECTION C 30 MARKS
9. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.
10. With vivid examples explain the factors which contribute to the drastic movement of people from rural to urban areas.
11. How does rapid population explosion affect small scale agriculture?

FORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 17
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
HISTORY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 2HRS                                                                    2020
NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
Instructions:
  1. This paper consitts of Section A,B ad C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A,B and three questions from section C.
  3. Write your answers on the given answer sheets 
  4. Write your full names at the top of  every page
  5. Time is three hours 
SECTION A (20MARKS)
1.Under each of the following items, there are five statements. One of the statements best completes the setences labelled from i-x. Identify the statement and write down its letter
(i) The berlin conference 0f 1884/85 was a result of 
  1. The decolonization process
  2. Neo-colonialism
  3. The Influence of Bismarck of Germany
  4. The development of capitalism to imperialism
  5. The development of mercantalism
(ii) The firt people who lived in the Interlucustrine region of East Africa were the:
  1. Chagga 
  2. Bachwezi 
  3. Luo 
  4. Bantu 
  5. Batembuzi 
(iii) The portuguese were mostly interested in the following activities in East Africa
  1. Spreading christianity 
  2. Spreading Islam
  3. Adventure and tourism
  4. Controling the wealth of this part of Africa
  5. Destroying the towns along the coats
(iv) The followign are the stages in evolution of man
  1. Zinjathropus,Home Erectus,Homosapiens,homohabilis
  2. Chimpanzee,Homo Erectus,Zinjathropus
  3. Modern Apes,old Apes,Chimpanzee,Homosapiens
  4. Chimpanzee,Zinjathropus,Homohabilis,Homo Erectus
  5. Food,shelter,clothes,health services
(v) The following were the main participants in Long Distance Trade in East Africa
  1. Yao,Barbaig,Arabs and Mandinka
  2. Ngoni, Tuareg,Arabs and Mazrui
  3. Chagga, Maasai and Bena 
  4. Yao,Nyamwezi and Kamba
  5. Imbagala, Vimbundu and Arabs.
(vi) The earliest socal organization from ehich each society has passed through is;
  1. Slavery 
  2. Socialism 
  3. Feudalism 
  4. Communalism 
  5. Monopoly 
(vii) The ability of the early man to walk by using two limbs is known as;
  1. Homosapiens
  2. Revolution 
  3. Evolution 
  4. Bipedalism 
  5. Adoption 
(viii) The origin of the ngoni speaking people is historically believed to be in;
  1. Soweto in South Africa
  2. Arusha Tanzania
  3. Pretoria in South Africa
  4. Natal in South Africa
  5. Kigoma in Tanzania
(ix) History is the study of;
  1. Future facts 
  2. Past,present and future tense
  3. Past selected information
  4. Man’s activities against nature through various steges of development
  5. Ujamaa in traditional African societies
(x) The NOK region in West Africa was famous in;
  1. Pastoralism 
  2. Agriculture and pastoralism
  3. Salt making
  4. Iron smelting
  5. Fishing and lumbering
2.Match the dates in list A with thehistorical event in list B by writing the letter of the correct event.
LIST A
LIST B
(i) 1810-1860
(ii) 1873-1895 (iii) 1905-1907
(iv) 1886
(v) 1896-1897
(vi) 1884-1885
(vii) 1870-1871
(viii) 1877-1888
(ix) 1959
(x) 1869
  1.  Jomo Kenyatta died
  2. The dicovery of the skull of the earliest man at olduvai Gorge by Dr.Louis Leakey
  3. The Russo-Turkish war
  4. Franco-German war
  5. The Berlin Conference
  6. The opening up of suez canal
  7. Anglo-German treaty
  8. Majimaji uprising
  9. The economic depression
  10. Kinjektile was arested by German troops
  11. Mau mau uprising
  12. Ndebele and Shona resistance
  13. Ngoni migration
 SECTION B: (20MARKS)
3.(a)Draw a sketch map of East Africa and mark the following historical sites;
Olduvai Gorge, Fort Ternan, Rusinga Island, Kondoa and Nsongezi.
(b) State the historical significance of the sites mentioned in (a) above.
4.Identify the incorrect historical statements in the following items and write  its letter beside the item number.
(A) The Berlin Conference resolved to abolish slave in all Europeans occupied territories.
(B) The Berlin Conference of 1884/1885 was an imperialist conference which brought together European and African chiefs to divide Africa.
(C) The Berlin conference legalized the division of African countries among European capitalists
(D) The Berlin Conference declared the basins of Nile,Niger and Congo rivers as free zones.
II. (A) Oral tradition keeps on changing as time passes
(B) Oral tradition are not biased
(C) Oral tradition is mainly useful to illiterate society
(D) Oral tradition can be obtained through the use of cultural practices such as music,poems,songs,proverbs and riddles.
III. (A) Selling war prisoners were one of the methods used to obtain slaves in East Africa.
(B) Slaves were obtained by preaching good news to them
(C) Frequent burning of villages added the number of slaves to slave traders.
(D) Slave traders raided villages during nights to capture slaves.
 IV. (A) The East African long distance trade involved the Arabs and Nyamwezi
(B) The Arabs were not interested in slaves during long distance trade
(C) One of the principle exports during long distance trade was ivory from the interior
(D) Due to long distance trade,Zanzibar under Sultan Seyyid Said became well known to Arab countries.
V. (A) The south African Boers introduced the Bantustan policy in South Africa as one of the strategies to control liberation struggles.
(B) In addition, they encouraged the formation of the Patriotic front
(C) Besides, they established a law prohibiting whites to marry blacks
(D) More over, they established the constructive engagement policy in the neighbouring Namibia.
SECTION C: (60 MARKS)
5. Explain the resolutions of the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885.
6. Differentiate between scramble and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th Century. With examples briefly explain what caused them.
7. Discuss the sources on the basis in which historical information is reconstructed.
8. Account for the tactics used by Europeans to impose colonial rule in Africa .
9. Through their activities the missionaries became forerunners of colonialism. Justify this statement.
10. With examples explain the significance of the Berlin conference of 1884-1885


FORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 16
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
CIVICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 2.30HRS                                                                                            2020
NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
  • This paper consists of three sections, A, B and C
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and 2 questions from section C
  • All answers must be written on the spaces provided
  • Ensure clarity on your answers
1. For each of the items (i – x ) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number below;
(i) A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technique subject is likely to be influenced by
  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender analysis
  4. Gender
  5. Gender balance
 (ii) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors, the external factors are
  1. Excessive speed
  2. Overtaking errors
  3. Parking error
  4. Reckless driving
  5. Poor road condition
 (iii) The following are characteristics of state except
  1. Presence of a defined territory in which people live 
  2. Is fully independents
  3. Should have good cities and well arranged
  4. Presence of government with full political control
 (iv) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this friendship is called.
  1. Courtship 
  2. Infidelity
  3. Early marriage
  4. Initiation period
  5. Kitchen part
 (v) The national flag of Tanganyika was hoisted for the first time
  1. 9th December 1961
  2. 26th April 1964
  3. 7th  April 1965
  4. 1st Jan 1964
 (vi) Parents should teach their children good manners through the following except.
  1. By demonstrating to their children what they want them to do
  2. Maintain their own norms and value that guide children
  3. Tell them what are bad and not acceptable in society
  4. Give children everything they want and treat them luxuriously
 (vii) The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in
  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984
  4. 1977
  5. 1992
 (viii) Empathy means
  1. Is the ability of putting oneself in other peoples mood when they are faced by serious problems
  2. Is the ability of people requires skills according to need
  3. Is a mental emotional or physical tension
  4. Is the ability of a person to recognize   one’s emotions and reasons for them
 (ix) Social development refers to
  1. Improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2. Improvement in relations among the people
  3. Improved women welfare in the society
  4. Peace and harmony in the society
 (x) The ability of a person to convey ideas, feelings thoughts to be known to others is known as
  1. Negotiation skills
  2. Empathy
  3. Peer pressure
  4. Effective communication skill
 2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer
LIST A
LIST B
(i)Is the belief in the existence of God or gods
(ii) Refugees, street children, women, elderly
(iii) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options
(iv) Principles of fairness, justice and benefits that all human are born with
(v) A person accepted as a member of country 
  1. Guidance and cancelling
  2. NGOs
  3. Decision making skills
  4. Orphans
  5. Citizen
  6. Religion
  7. Work
  8. Teaching
  9. Citizenship
  10. Special group
  11. TAWLA
  12. Human right
  13. Human right abuse
 SECTION B (40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Historically the question of human rights has been constantly attracting international attention. In different places all over the world Tanzania included, human rights are being violated at different levels, ranging from the central government itself, local government, public institutions such as court and police, society and even at the level of the family and religion to mention few. Due to ignorance caused by lack of information and poverty, the victims of human rights violation may not be aware if their rights are violated or not. In some cases those who violate human rights do not know that they are violating them.
To combat the problem of violating human rights in Tanzania appropriate measures need to be taken. The first alternative is the on-going improvement of human rights education to the entire public. All citizens should be educated on human rights. Authorities such as police, people’s militia, executives, members of the parliament, councilors, teachers, employers and parents should know human rights.
The second steps is to know where to go when human rights are violated. In most cases violations occur to individuals. The court system and the police are the major organs that protect human rights. However, these organs may not help if human rights education is not provided. There is a need to form local human rights groups which will serve well even when an individual alone cannot get his/her rights. Such groups can be formed by students, women, workers, villagers or professionals, disabled, retired employers etc.
These groups will serve as regulators when any person or group is denied his/her rights. They will have a strong and common voice against any violation. This behavior will enable even law enforcers such as police, tax officers, magistrates and judges to be careful when doing their duties. This will ensure and enhance the commitment of lawyers and judges to interpret the laws accordingly. 
Questions
  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage
  2. According to the passage, name two violators of human rights in our society
  3. In the context of this passage, outline two strategies that can be used to protect human rights in Tanzania
  4. In your views, what do you think is the role of the judiciary in protecting human rights in Tanzania? Give two points.
  5. Point out two negative effects of human rights abuse
5. Mother and father are important members of the family everyone has his/her responsibility in the family. Mention five responsibility for each of them.
Father:
  1. ______________________________________________________________
  2. ______________________________________________________________
  3. ______________________________________________________________
  4. ______________________________________________________________
  5. ______________________________________________________________
Mother
  1. ______________________________________________________________
  2. ______________________________________________________________
  3. ______________________________________________________________
  4. ______________________________________________________________
  5. ______________________________________________________________
5. Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.
  1. …………………………………………… …………………… ………………………..
  2. ……………………… ………………………… ………………… ……………………. 
  3. ………………………… …………………………………… ……………… ……………
  4. …………… ……………………… ………………………………… ………… …………
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………..
  6. …………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a source of underdevelopment. Discuss eight (8) merits of globalization in Tanzania.
  1. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  2. ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………….
  6. ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  7. ………………………………………………………………………………………….
  8. …………………………………………………………………………………………..
7. Explain five reasons why work is important.
  1. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………
  2. …………………………………… …………………………………… …………………….
  3. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………
  4. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………….
  5. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………
8. What are principles of democracy?
  1. ……………………………… ……………………………… ……………………………….
  2. ……………………………… ……………………………… ………………………………
  3. ………………………………… ………………………………… ………………………….
  4. ………………………………… ………………………………… …………………………….
  5. ………………………………… ………………………………… ……………………………..
SECTION C
Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks
9. What are eight importance of our culture in maintaining society morals and values
10. In seven points write indicators of dictatorship government.
11. Mobile phone is very important tool in society but sometimes can cause a lot of problems in peoples’ lives. Prove the statement with not less than eight points.
12. Street children is a hot challenge in our society, write five causes of street children and five points on the solution of this challenge.


FORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 15
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PHYSICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
Time 3:00 Hours                                                                      MAY 2020 
Instructions 
  • This paper consists of two sections A B and C. 
  • Answer all questions in Section A and B and two question from section C
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary 
SECTION A. 15 MARKS
1. (i) A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called?
  1. Center of curvature
  2. Focus
  3. Optical center
  4. Aperture.
(ii) The diameter of a lens is called?
  1. Focal length
  2. Principal axis
  3. Aperture
  4. Radius
(iii) Point at which all rays converge in termed as
  1. Converging point
  2. Focal point
  3. Focal center
  4. Converging center
(iv) Distance of virtual image and object is equal from mirror. This statement is
  1. Right
  2. Wrong
  3. May be right or wrong
  4. Neither right nor wrong
(v) Voltage is a form of:-
  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Potential energy
  3. Both potential and kinetic energy
  4. None of the above.
(vi) Ohm’s Law states which relationship between electrical quantities
  1. Volts = current image resistance
  2. Volts = currentimage amps
  3. Volts = coulomb image charge
  4. Volts = resistance image charge
(vii) Process of heat transfer that involves continual emission of infrared waves from surface of bodies and transmission of these waves without aid of medium is known as
  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Radiation
  4. None of the above
(viii)Vacuum in a vacuum flask prevents heat transfer through process of
  1. Conduction only
  2. Convection only
  3. Conduction and Convection
  4. Radiation only
(ix) The act process or state of change in place or position of a body with respect to time and relative to observes is to be 
  1. Rest 
  2. Stationery
  3. Motion
  4. All of above
(x) Which of the following is a type of motion?
  1. Circular
  2. Rectilinear
  3. Periodic
  4. All of above
2. Match the following items
List A
List B
  1. Image on opposite side of mirror
  2. Ratio of angle of incidence to angle of refraction
  3. Unique angle incidence for which angle of refraction is 90
  4. Distance between optical center and principle focus
  5. Angle formed by intersection of incident ray direction and emergent ray direction
  1. Principle focus
  2. Refractive index
  3. Absolute index.
  4. Focal length
  5. Angle of deviation
  6. Real image
  7. Virtual image
  8. Snell’s law
           SECTION B. 60 MARKS
3. (a) A Jet air plane travelling at speeding of 500km/h ejects its products of combustions at speed of 1500km/h relative to jet plane. Find speed of the later with respect to an observer on the ground.
(b) A car moving along a straight line with a speed of 126km/h is brought to a stop within a distance of 200m. What is the retardation of the car? And how long does it take for the car to stop?
4. (a) (i) What is meant by specific latent heat of vaporization. 
 (ii) Name two factors which affect the boiling point and freezing point of water.
(b) Explain in terms of kinetic theory of matter;
 (i) What changes is taking place while the liquid is boiling? 
(ii) Why it takes longer time to boil a tea on top of high mountains than at the sea level? 
(c) (i) Define heat capacity
 (ii) Calculate the final temperature of water formed if 8.4 KJ of heat is supplied to 0.02 kg of ice at 0 °C. 
5. (a) What is meant by refraction of light?
    (b) Mention the three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to form the    image in lens.
    (c) Mention four effects of refraction of light.
6. (a) What is sea wave energy?
    (b) Explain three ways of harvesting sea wave energy
    (c) Describe challenges of sea wave energy.
7. (a) State what you understand by
  1. Magnetic field
  2. Magnetic line of force.
(b) Sketch lines of force between (2) bars of magnet placed horizontally on table with;
  1. Their N – poles facing each other
  2. Their N – poles facing South pole.
    (c) Explain why;
  1. Strength of magnet cannot be increased beyond certain limit.
  2. Increase in temperature destroys a magnet.
 8. (a) Explain the image formed by curved mirror in terms of:-
  1. Position
  2. Nature
  3. Size
   (b) An object 20cm high is placed 40cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. Determine position, nature and size of image formed by drawing a ray diagram.
 SECTION C
Answer only two questions from this section.
 9. (a) What is a microscope?
    (b)Explain how light microscope works
    (c) Mention three uses of compound microscope.
    (d)What is a projection lantern
    (e) Give five uses of a projectile lantern. 
10. (a) State the energy conversion is a solar cell and give two practical application of it.
 (b) Explain why solar cells are not likely to be used to generate electricity in future?
 (c ) Discuss the problems associated with fuel energy to the environment.
 11. (a) Define the following terms; 
(i) Evaporation (ii)Temperature.
(b) Give four differences between boiling and evaporation. 
(c) An immersion heater rated 2kW is used to heat water of specific heat capacity 2200j/kgK in an insulated container of negligible heat capacity for 30minutes. Calculate the mass of water heated if the temperature of water rises from  20°C to 65°C. 

FORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 14
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
CHEMISTRY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 2HRS                                                                                           2020
NAME:_______________________________________CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
  1. This paper consists of 3 sections A, B,and C
  2. Answer all questions in all sections
  3. Phones and electronic calculators are not allowed
  4. All work should be done using blue or black pen
  5. The following information and constants may be useful
H=1, N=14, O=16, C=12, Fe=56, Pb=207, Cl=35.5, Ca=40, Mn=55, K=39, 1litre=1dm3=1000cm3
Avogadro’s constant=6.02x1023 particles
1 faraday=96500 coulombs
GMV at STP=22.4dm3
SECTION A (20 MARKS)
1. For each item (i-x) choose the correct answer from given alternative and write it beside the item number in answer booklet provided.
(i) An element in periodic table with atom number 18 belongs to which of the following
  1. Group 1 and period 1
  2. Group O and period III
  3. Group III and period III
  4. Group V and period IV
  5. Group VII and period IV
(ii) The ionic equation when ammonium chloride react with sodium hydroxide is
  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl- image 2NH3 + Cl2 + H
  2. NH+4 +  OH- image NH3  + H2O
  3. Na+   + Cl- image      NaCl
  4. 2NH+4      + 2Cl-(aq) image 2NH3(g) + 2Hcl(g)
  5. H+   + OH- image H2O
(iii) The reason why white anhydrous copperII sulphate turns Blue when exposed to atmosphere is
  1. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Becomes dry
  4. Absorbs water vapour
  5. Decomposes
 (iv) Chemical change means
  1. Change in reversible
  2. Can easily be separated
  3. Change is complete
  4. Produces no change in mass
  5. New substance is produced
 (v) If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of ironII sulphate for 15 minutes, then, mass of iron deposited will be.
  1. 54g
  2. 56g
  3. 0.54g
  4. 28g
  5. 0.52g
 (vi) Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?
  1. 50g of calcium carbonate in 100cm3 of water
  2. 60g of sodium chloride in 200cm3 of water
  3. 65g of potassium nitrate in 100cm3 of water
  4. 120g of potassium suphate in 200cm3 of water
  5. 50g of sodium hydroxide in 200cm3 of water
 (vii) Copper can be separated from mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture
  1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
  2. Dilute sulphuric acid
  3. Aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4. Catalyst
  5. Concentrated nitric acid
 (viii) 10cm of 0.4M sodium hydroxide are added to 40cm3 of 0.2M Hcl. The resulting mixture will be
  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric
 (ix) The only metal which does not react with dilute Hcl is
  1. Magnesium
  2. Alluminium
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium
(x) During electrolysis of molten aluminum oxide; 3 faradays were needed to deposit one mole of aluminum. The number of electrons of aluminum will be:
  1. 6.02 X 1023
  2. 1.806 X 1023
  3. 18.06 X 1023
  4. 180.6 X 1023
  5. 1806 X 1023
2. Match the items in list A with responses in list B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in separate answer sheet.
LIST A
LIST B
(i) Its nitrate decomposes to metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen
(ii) Its chloride is used as a drying agent
(iii) Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water
(iv) It is stored paraffin
(v) It hydride ion is metallic in nature
(vi) Exists into two main physical forms
(vii) Greenish- yellow gas
(viii) Forms insoluble sulphate
(ix) Reacts with carbon dioxide to form an oxide
(x) Used as sacrificial element in catholic protection
  1. Potassium
  2. Zinc
  3. Argon
  4. Calcium
  5. Magnesium
  6. Chlorine
  7. Carbon
  8. Load
  9. Nitrogen
  10. Beryllium
  11. Neon
  12. Hydrogen
  13. Helium
  14. Sodium
  15. Boron
  16. Iodine
  17. Manganese
  18. Phosphorus
  19. silver
SECTION B (54 MARKS)
3. a) Why do chemistry laboratory exits open outward? 
State uses of any four items in first Aid Kit
b) i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity – zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper, mercury
ii) Which of the following metals b (i) reacts with steam forming an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?
4. a)20cm of solution containing 7g dm3 sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25cm of 0.1M Hcl. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm
b) Give two examples of
(i) Gaseous solution
(ii) Solid solution
5. a)The table below show part of periodic table study it and answer questions that follow
H
He
Li
Be
B
F
Al
Si
P
S
Cl
Ar
 Fill all missing elements
(i) Write the reaction equation involved in industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid in contact process; starting with sulphur metal
(ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid
6. a)Explain how you can separate crystals of copper II sulphate from pieces of broken glasses
b) With aid of equation explain how washing soda removes hardness of water
7. Table below give information about composition of three samples of water Mineral content per Mg per litre
Ions Kahama Maswa Bukombe
Ca2+ 28 82 18
Mg2+ 14 41 13
Cl- 53 7 22
Na+ 7 143 39
HCO-3 281 5 93
SO42-  2 14 16
(i) State two ways in which these ions get into water
(ii) Give two reasons, state hardest water sample
(iii) State two ways that can be used to remove hardness in (II)
b) Write the following molecular equation to ionic
(i) Fe(s) + CUSO4(aq)  → FeSO4(aq)    + Cu(s)
(ii) Na2SO4(aq)  + Bacl2(aq) → BaSO4(g)   + 2Nacl(aq)
State the type of chemical reaction
(8) a) When a burning splint is introduced in gas for containing CO2, the flame goes off.
i) What two properties of CO2 does this experiment lustrate?
ii) What type of equipment widely used in everyday life makes use of these two properties?
b) The equation below show dissociation of calcium carbonate 
CaCO3(s)    → CaO(s) + CO2(g)   H
(i) Is the forward reaction endothermic or exothermic?
(ii) What factors favour forward reaction?
(iii) What will be the effect on proportion of CaCO3 in the equilibrium mixture if temperature is decreased?
9. a)Lead nitrate decompose on heating as follows
2 Pb (NO3)2(g)   →     2PbO(S) + 4NO2 (g) + O2(g)
112dm3 of O2 were collected at STP when a sample of a lead nitrate was completely decomposed on heating. Calculate mass of load II nitrate in the sample.
b) Define the following terms
(i) Mole
(ii) Titrant
(iii) Analyte
(iv) Molar solution
10. a)Differentiate between
(i) A base and alkali
(ii) Atom and isotope
b) An organic compound P consists of 52.2% carbon, 13% hydrogen, and 34.8% oxygen.
The vapour density of P is 23. Calculate the molecular formula of compound P
11. Describe the extraction of iron using the blast furnace
SECTION C   (26 MARKS)
12. Assume that you are a chemist in a chemical plant and want to produce 100litres of chlorine gas per hour so as to reach company goal of producing 2400litres every day. What current of electricity will you allow to flow per hour?
13. A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate was nitrated with 1.68M nitric acid solution. 30cm3 of the solution required 28.75cm3 of nitric acid for complete reaction. If the solution was prepared by dissolving 12.056g of the carbonate to make 600cm3 of solution, determine the molecules of water of crystallization in hydrated sodium carbonate.
END


FORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 13
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM THREE
TIME: 3HRS                                                                                                         
NAME: __________________________________                        CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C
iii) Ensure clarity in your responses
iv) Don’t attempt to cheat
SECTION A. 20 MARKS
1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Thalamus
  4. Pituitary
 (ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to….
  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity
 (iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?
  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane
 (iv)  Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were
  1. In isotonic solution
  2. In hypotonic solution
  3. In hypertonic solution
  4. Non of the above
 (v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it
  1. Cup fungi
  2. Penicillum
  3. Yeast
  4. Rhizopus stolonifer
 (vi)  The skin does all these except;
  1. Regulate temperature
  2. Produce blood cells
  3. Store fat
  4. Prevent you from ultra-violet rays
 (vii) All are functions of saliva except;
  1. Digestion of starch
  2. Digestion of protein
  3. Lubrication of food
  4. Protection of bacteria
 (viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?
  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Condenser
  4. All of the above
 (ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?
  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not
 (x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?
  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations
2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.
LIST A
LIST B
i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli
ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another
iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord
iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible
v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action
  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Reflex arc
  9. Sensory neuron
SECTION B 60 marks
Answer all questions in this section
All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.
3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following   conditions:
i)  When the temperature of the surrounding is low
ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature
b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?
4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron

a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?
b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3
c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?
d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica. 
ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows

a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F
b) State the function of structure labeled D
c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?
5. a)Define the term photosynthesis
b) Give the importance of photosynthesis
c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis
d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell
e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?
 6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants
b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things
 7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate

 a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z
b)  Name the parts D, and A
c)  State the functions of W?
d)  A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.
ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions

a) Name the process that takes place in C and F
b) What types of solutions are A,B and C
c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?
d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?
8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system
b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver
    ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)
9. a)Differentiate the following terms:
i)  Breathing and respiration
ii) Inhalation and exhalation
b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:
i)  A person breathes more when is running fast
ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs
SECTION C (20 MARKS)
Answer one (1) question from this section
10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.
 11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.
12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

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